http://apologeticspress.org/APContent.aspx?category=13&article=1582
Alleged Chronological Contradictions
Since the Bible begins at the Creation with Genesis—the book of
beginnings—and ends with the book of Revelation (which many scholars
believe was the last recorded book of the Bible), students of the
Scriptures often assume that the Bible was compiled chronologically.
Many students approach their reading of the Bible with the mind-set that
everything in Scripture is arranged “from A to Z.” Since Genesis
records what took place at the beginning of time, and it is the first
book of the Bible, then the rest of the Bible follows suit, right?
Actually, what the diligent student eventually finds is that the Bible
is
not a book of strict chronology. All sixty-six books
of the Bible are not arranged in the order in which they were written.
Furthermore, all of the events contained within each book also are not
necessarily recorded chronologically.
Consider the following arrangement of some of the books in the Bible:
-
Although the books of Haggai and Zechariah have been placed near the
end of the Old Testament, these men prophesied while the events in the
book of Ezra were taking place (cf. Ezra 5:1; 6:14). Twenty books
separate Haggai and Zechariah from the book of Ezra, yet the events
recorded in each book were occurring at the same time. Obviously, these
books are not arranged in chronological order.
-
Even though 2 Chronicles appears before the book of Job, the events
recorded in Job took place long before those that are recorded in 2
Chronicles. In fact, if the Bible were a book of strict chronology, the
events recorded in Job would be placed somewhere within the book of
Genesis, likely somewhere after chapter nine (cf. Job 22:15-16;
42:16-17).
-
In the New Testament, one might assume that since 1 Thessalonians
comes after the book of Acts, that Luke penned Acts earlier than Paul
penned his first letter to the church at Thessalonica. The truth is,
however, 1 Thessalonians was written years before the book of Acts was
completed.
In addition to the sixty-six books of the Bible not being arranged
chronologically, inspired writers did not always record information in a
strictly chronological sequence within each book. Making the assumption
that the entire Bible was written chronologically hinders a proper
understanding of the text. As you will see throughout this article,
several alleged contradictions are resolved simply by acknowledging that
many times Bible writers did not record events in a strict sequential
order.
ONLY ONE LANGUAGE BEFORE BABEL?
According to some skeptics, Genesis 10 verses 5, 20, and 31 contradict
what is stated in Genesis 11:1. Supposedly, since Moses recorded that
the descendants of Shem, Ham, and Japheth spoke different languages in
Genesis 10, and yet he indicated that “the whole earth had one language
and one speech” in Genesis 11:1, then a discrepancy exists. Obviously,
before the dispersion of man at Babel, the whole Earth could not have
both
many languages and
only one language at the same time.
The explanation to this “problem” is that the events recorded in
Genesis 10-11 were not written chronologically. Genesis 10 is more of an
overview, while Genesis 11 speaks of one event within Genesis 10. Some
of the things recorded in chapter 10 occurred before the tower of Babel,
while others occurred sometime later. Consider that Genesis 2:5-25 does
not pick up where chapter 1 left off; rather, it provides more detailed
information about some of the events mentioned in chapter 1. (Whereas
Genesis 1 is arranged chronologically, Genesis 2 is organized
topically.) Several of the events in Genesis 38 involving Judah and
Tamar occurred while the things recorded in chapter 39 (and those that
follow) took place. Similar to a teacher who is telling her class a
story, and inserts information about something the main character did in
the past or will do in the future, Moses “jumped” ahead of himself at
times by inserting parenthetical material like that found in Genesis 10.
Aside from the languages mentioned in Genesis 10, there is another
“clue” in the text that reveals the events recorded in chapter 11
occurred
before the descendants of Noah began speaking
different languages and spreading throughout the Earth. Genesis 10:25
mentions a man named Peleg (meaning “division”) who received such a name
because “in his days the earth was divided.” More than likely, this is a
reference to the confusion of languages at the tower of Babel described
in chapter 11. The “Earth” (i.e., people; cf. 11:1) divided when God
confused the languages (11:7-8). Thus, the division in Peleg’s day is
linked contextually to the linguistic segregation at Babel (Genesis
11:1-9).
When Genesis 10 and 11 are read with the understanding that not all
events are recorded chronologically, one sees clearly how the events
revealed in these chapters are entwined tightly with one another—so
tightly in fact that those who seek contradictions are doomed to fail.
Linguistically speaking, there was no pre-Babel confusion; only one
language was in existence (Genesis 11:1).
DID SAUL KNOW DAVID PRIOR TO GOLIATH’S DEATH?
Following the account of Samuel’s visit to Bethlehem to anoint David as
the future king of Israel, the book of 1 Samuel indicates that David
became the harp player and armor bearer for King Saul (16:14-23).
Subsequent to this information, the reader is told of David’s
magnificent triumph over Goliath (1 Samuel 17), which then is followed
by an “interrogation” by King Saul, who asked David, “Whose son are you,
young man?” (17:58). A general reading through the text of 1 Samuel
16-17 has led some Bible believers to question why Saul (it seems) knew
David, then did not know David, and then got to know him again.
Skeptics, likewise, have inquired about the consistency of this story
(see Morgan, 2003; Wells, 2001; “Inerrancy,” n.d.). Paul Tobin, in an
article titled “Internal Contradictions in the Bible,” summed up the
skeptic’s argument by stating that 1 Samuel 16 “clearly shows that
David...was known to Saul. Yet a little later, after David’s fight with
Goliath, Saul is made to inquire from his chief captain as to the
identity of the giant slayer (I Samuel 17:56). And he is again made to
inquire from David who he is, when he should have known this all along”
(2000). Allegedly, the Bible’s portrayal of Saul’s ignorance of David
after Goliath’s death is proof of the Bible writers’ imperfection when penning the Scriptures.
First, it is imperative for one to recognize that, as with other Bible
passages, nowhere in 1 Samuel 16-17 are we told that all of these events
occurred in chronological order. Although throughout 1 Samuel, there is
a general, sequential progression, such does not demand that
every
event recorded in the book must be laid out chronologically. In fact,
within chapter 17 there is evidence that this is not the case. For
example, the events recorded in 17:54 (i.e., David putting his armor in
his tent, and taking the head of Goliath to Jerusalem) postdate the
conversations mentioned in verses 55-58 (as verse 57 makes clear). More
precisely, verses 55-56 synchronize with verse 40, while events recorded
in verses 57-58 correlate well with the end of verse 51 (Youngblood,
1992, 3:703). And, regarding chapter 16, who can say for certain that
David was not already playing the harp for Saul before Samuel anointed
him? First Samuel 17:15 indicates that “David occasionally went and
returned from Saul to feed his father’s sheep at Bethlehem.” Perhaps it
was during one of these furloughs that he was anointed as the future
king of Israel (16:1-13). Unless the text clearly distinguishes one
event as occurring before or after another, a person cannot conclude for
certain the exact chronology of those events. Just because one
historical event recorded in the Bible precedes another, does not mean
that it could not have occurred at a later time (or vice versa). Truly,
the ancients were not as concerned about chronology as is the average
person in twenty-first-century America.
Aside from the fact that one cannot be certain about the exact sequence
of events recorded in 1 Samuel 16-17, several possible explanations
exist as to why Saul appeared not to recognize David after his triumphal
victory over Goliath. First, enough time could have lapsed so that
David’s appearance changed significantly since the last time he appeared
before King Saul. William M. Thomson, a missionary in Syria and
Palestine for nearly half of the nineteenth century, once described the
sudden changes in the physical development of Eastern youths in his book
titled
The Land and the Book.
They not only spring into full-grown manhood as if by magic, but all
their former beauty disappears; their complexion becomes dark; their
features hard and angular.... I have often been accosted by such
persons, formerly intimate acquaintances, but who had suddenly grown
entirely out of my knowledge, nor could I without difficulty recognize
them (1859, 2:366).
Few would deny that young men can change quickly over a relatively
short period of time. Facial hair, increased height and weight, larger,
more defined muscles, darker skin, a deeper voice, as well as the
wearing of different apparel, may all factor into why a person may say
to someone that he or she knows, but has not seen for some time, “I
hardly recognized you. You’ve changed.” Surely, it is more than possible
that between the time David served Saul as a harpist, and the time he
slew Goliath, he could have experienced many physical changes that
prevented a “distressed” king from recognizing his former harpist.
A second reason Saul might have failed to recognize David is because he
may have lapsed into another unreliable mental state. Saul’s
intermittent deviation from normalcy is seen throughout the book of 1
Samuel (cf. 16:14-23; 18:9-12; 19:22-24; 22:6-19), and it is possible
17:54-58 is another allusion to his defective perception. In his
discussion of 1 Samuel 17, biblical commentator Robert Jamieson
mentioned this possibility, saying, “The king’s moody temper, not to say
frequent fits of insanity, would alone be sufficient to explain the
circumstance of his not recognizing a youth who, during the time of his
mental aberration, had been much near him, trying to soothe his
distempered soul” (1997).
Third, it could be that Saul did, in fact, remember David, but because
of jealousy over David’s momentous victory (cf. 1 Samuel 18:8-11), and
perhaps on hearing that Samuel had been to Bethlehem to anoint him as
the next king (1 Samuel 16:1-13), Saul simply wanted to
act
like he did not know David. Such a scenario is not difficult to
envision. Today, a teacher or coach might inquire about a student whom
he or she already knows, yet in hopes of instilling more submission into
the arrogant teen, the faculty member acts somewhat aloof. One textual
indication that such may be the explanation of 1 Samuel 17:54-58 is that
Saul still referred to David, the bear-killing, lion-slaying,
Goliath-demolisher, as a “stripling” (Hebrew
‘elem—17:56, ASV) and “young man” (Hebrew
na’ar—17:55,58).
Although these two words do not necessarily carry a belittling
connotation, neither designation seems very appropriate for a man who
had just tried on the armor of King Saul—a man once described as
“shoulders upward... taller than any of the people” (1 Samuel 9:2)—and
had just killed one of the fiercest enemies of Israel. Truly, Saul’s
supposed ignorance of David and his family may well have been a
“performance” instigated by what physician Herman van Praag once called,
“haughtiness fed by envy” (1986, 35:421).
Finally, one must realize that the text does not even actually say that Saul did not know
David.
It only records that Saul asked, “Whose son is this youth?” (1 Samuel
17:55; cf. vss. 56,58). It is an assumption to conclude that Saul did
not recognize David. The king simply could have been inquiring about
David’s family. Since Saul had promised to reward the man who killed
Goliath by giving “
his father’s house exemption from
taxes in Israel” (17:25), Saul might have been questioning David in
order to ensure the identity of David’s family. Furthermore, 18:1 seems
to presuppose an extended conversation between the two, which would
imply that Saul wanted even more information than just the name of
David’s father.
Truly, any of these possibilities could account for Saul’s examination
of David. The burden of proof is on the skeptic to show otherwise. As
respected law professor Simon Greenleaf concluded regarding the rule of
municipal law in relation to ancient writings:
Every document, apparently ancient, coming from the proper repository
or custody, and bearing on its face no evident marks of forgery, the law presumes to be genuine, and devolves on the opposing party the burden of proving it to be otherwise (1995, p. 16, emp. added).
Until skeptics logically negate the above possible solutions to the
questions surrounding 1 Samuel 16-17, and are able to prove beyond doubt
that the Bible writer made a genuine mistake, no reason to doubt the
integrity of the biblical text exists.
KINGLY CHRONOLOGY IN THE BOOK OF EZRA
As if the spelling and pronunciation of Ahasuerus and Artaxerxes were
not problematic enough for the average Bible student, one must also
consider these Persian kings in light of the order in which they are
mentioned in the book of Ezra. According to history, the Persian kings
reigned in the following order: Cyrus (560-530 B.C.), Cambyses (530-522), Smerdis (522),
Darius I (522-486), Ahasuerus (486-465),
Artaxerxes I
(465-424), Darius II (423-405), and Artaxerxes II (405-358) [see Cook,
1983, p. 350]. The difficulty that presents itself in the book of Ezra
is that events surrounding letters which King Artaxerxes received from,
and wrote to, the enemies of the Jews (see Ezra 4:7-23) are mentioned
before
the reign of Darius I (Ezra 4:24-6:15). If it is a proven fact that
Darius served as king before Artaxerxes, why is the kingship of Darius
recorded in the book of Ezra subsequent to the reign of Artaxerxes?
First, it needs to be pointed out that the Darius of the book of Ezra
was
in fact Darius I and not Darius II. The second Darius lived too late in
history to have been contemporary with the rebuilding of the temple.
Thus, one cannot solve the question at hand simply by suggesting that
the Darius cited in Ezra was really Darius II, who lived after
Artaxerxes I.
Second, some may attempt to solve this difficulty by alleging that
Artaxerxes II was the king who reigned during the days of Ezra and
Nehemiah’s return to Jerusalem, while Artaxerxes I was the king
mentioned prior to Darius’ reign (Ezra 4:7-23). This solution is
unacceptable, however, since Artaxerxes II lived several years after the
events recorded in Ezra and Nehemiah.
So what is the answer? Why is the kingship of Darius recorded in the
book of Ezra following events connected with the kingship of
Artaxerxes—a king who is thought to have reigned after Darius? One
possible solution to this difficulty is that Ahasuerus and Artaxerxes of
Ezra 4:6,7-23 were respectively Cambyses (530-522) and Smerdis
(522)—kings of Persia (listed above) who reigned before Darius I. Since
Persian kings frequently had two or more names, it is not unfathomable
to think that Cambyses and Smerdis also may have gone by the names
Ahasuerus and Artaxerxes (see Wilson, 1996; see also Fausset, 1998).
Another explanation to this perceived dilemma is that the information
concerning the kings of Persia in Ezra 4 is grouped according to theme
rather than by chronology. Instead of having a record where everything
in chapter four is in sequential order, it is reasonable to conclude
that verses 6-23 serve as a parenthetical comment and that Ahasuerus and
Artaxerxes (4:6-7) are indeed Ahasuerus (486-465) and Artaxerxes I
(465-424) of history (rather than the aforementioned Cambyses and
Smerdis).
Bible students must keep in mind that just as there is more than one
way to write a book in the twenty-first century, ancient writers
frequently recorded events chronologically while occasionally inserting
necessary non-sequential material. It would have been natural for the
writer of the book of Ezra to follow a discussion of the problems
related to rebuilding the Jerusalem
temple (4:1-5) with information on a similar resistance the Jews encountered while rebuilding the
walls
of Jerusalem (4:6-23). Although the details in verses 6-23 initially
may puzzle our chronologically preconditioned mind-set, they actually
fit very well in their arrangement with the overall theme of the
chapter. In verse 24, the story picks up where it left off in verse 5.
The writer then returns to his focus on the problems with the rebuilding
of the temple, which lingered until “the second year of the reign of
Darius king of Persia” (Ezra 4:24).
WHEN DID JESUS CLEANSE THE TEMPLE?
One of the most popular alleged Bible discrepancies pertaining to
chronology—and one that skeptics are fond of citing in almost any
discussion on the inerrancy of Scripture—is whether or not Jesus
cleansed the temple
early in His ministry, or near the
end.
According to Matthew, Mark, and Luke, Jesus cleansed the temple during
the final week leading up to His death on the cross (Matthew 21:12-13;
Mark 11:15-17; Luke 19:45-46). John, however, places his record of the
temple cleansing in chapter 2 of his gospel account, between Jesus’
first miracle (2:1-12) and His conversation with Nicodemus (3:1-21). How
should John’s gospel account be understood in light of the other three
writers placing the event near the end of Jesus’ ministry? Skeptics
question, “Did Jesus enter the temple and drive out the money changers
early in His ministry, or near the end?”
Most often, it seems, the explanation heard regarding this difficulty
is that there was only one temple cleansing—near the end of Jesus’
life—and John’s placement of this event at an earlier time is the result
of his “theological,” rather than “chronological,” approach to writing
his account of the life and teachings of Jesus. The problem with this
explanation is that, although overall John may have been a little less
concerned with chronology than were the other writers, a straightforward
reading of the text favors the position that this particular clearing
of the temple was not something that occurred near the end of Jesus’
life. The record of Jesus’ first miracle, beginning in John 2:1, begins
with the phrase, “On the third day....” This section ends with John
writing the words, “After this...” (2:12, Greek
meta touto).
Following verse 12, John then begins his account of the temple cleansing
saying, “Now the Passover of the Jews was at hand...” (2:13). It
certainly would appear to be “out of the ordinary” for John to jump
ahead nearly three years in the life of Jesus to an event that occurred
in Jerusalem during the last week of His life, only then to backtrack to
a time prior to “the second sign Jesus did when He had come out of
Judea into Galilee” (John 4:54). Admittedly, John would not have erred
in writing about the temple cleansing early in his gospel account if the
Holy Spirit saw fit to mention the event at that time. (Perhaps this
would have been to show from the outset of Jesus’ ministry that He
“repudiated what was central to the Temple cults, and further that his
death and resurrection were critically important”—Morris, 1995, p. 167.)
A better explanation of this alleged contradiction exists, however:
There were two temple cleansings.
Why not? Who is to say that Jesus could not have cleansed the temple of
money-hungry, hypocritical Jews on two separate occasions—once earlier
in His ministry, and again near the end of His life as He entered
Jerusalem for the last time? Are we so naïve as to think that the temple
could not have been corrupted at two different times during the three
years of Jesus’ ministry? Jesus probably visited the temple several
times during the last few years of His life on Earth (especially when
celebrating the Passover—cf. John 2:13,23; 6:4; 11:55), likely finding
inappropriate things going on there more than once. Do churches in the
twenty-first century sometimes have problems that recur within a
three-year span? Have church leaders ever dealt with these problems in a
public manner multiple times and in similar ways? Of course. (“How soon
men forget the most solemn reproofs, and return to evil
practices”—Barnes, 1956, p. 196.)
What evidence does a person possess, which would force him to conclude
that Jesus cleansed the temple only once? There is none. While Matthew,
Mark, and Luke recorded a temple cleansing late in Jesus’ ministry, much
evidence exists to indicate that John recorded an earlier clearing of
the temple. It is logical to conclude that the extra details recorded in
John 2 are not simply supplemental facts (even though the writers of
the gospels did supplement each others’ writings fairly frequently).
Rather, the different details recorded by John likely are due to the
fact that we are dealing with two different temple cleansings. Only John
mentioned (1) the oxen and sheep, (2) the whip of cords, (3) the
scattering of the money, (4) Jesus’ command, “Take these things away,”
and (5) the disciples’ remembrance of Psalm 69:9: “Zeal for Your house
has eaten Me up” (2:17). Furthermore, John did not include Jesus’
quotation of Isaiah 56:7, which is found in all three of the other
accounts, and stands as a prominent part of their accounts of the temple
cleansing.
In view of the major differences in wording, in setting, and in time,
as well as the fact that, apart from the work of John the Baptizer,
nothing in the first five chapters of John’s gospel account is found in
Matthew, Mark, or Luke, “we will require more evidence than a facile
assumption that the two similar narratives must refer to the same event”
(Morris, 1995, p. 167). There is no chronological contradiction here.
WHEN DID THE TEMPLE VEIL TEAR?
A few years ago, a journal dedicated to revealing (alleged) Bible
errors petitioned its readers to submit their “best” biblical questions
and arguments that “they have found through actual experience to be
exceptionally effective vis-à-vis biblicists...and they will probably be
published for all to see and use” (McKinsey, 1988a, p. 6). The first
response printed in the journal (two months later) was from a man who
listed among his top five “Bible contradictions” a question of whether
or not the veil of the temple was torn in two “before” (Luke 23:44-46)
or “after” (Matthew 27:50-51) Jesus died on the cross. The skeptic
stated that this question was one of his favorites to ask because it
elicited “such ludicrous rebuttals from Christian apologists” (McKinsey,
1988b, p. 6).
Before taking the skeptic’s word at face value as to what these
scriptures actually say (or do not say), compare the passages for
yourself.
And Jesus cried again with a loud voice, and yielded up his spirit.
And behold, the veil of the temple was rent in two from the top to the
bottom (Matthew 27:50-51, ASV; cf. Mark 15:37-38).
And it was now about the sixth hour, and a darkness came over the
whole land until the ninth hour, the sun’s light failing: and the veil
of the temple was rent in the midst. And Jesus, crying with a loud
voice, said, “Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit”: and having
said this, he gave up the ghost (Luke 23:44-46).
Do you read anything in either Matthew or Luke’s account that says the
veil was torn “before” or “after” Jesus died (to use the skeptic’s own
words)? Granted, Luke did mention the rending of the veil before he
recorded that Jesus died, and Matthew mentioned it after recording His
death, but neither made any direct statements that would indicate
exactly when the rending took place. Simply because one Bible writer
recorded something before, or after, another writer does not mean that
either writer is attempting to establish a chronological time line.
Unless the skeptic can point to a verse by both writers that says these
events occurred in the precise order in which they are recorded, then no
case can be made for these two passages being incompatible.
Consider for a moment the “to do list” that many of us make either
daily or weekly. If someone peeked at your list and saw where you
crossed off the first four things, but the things that you had marked
off were not in the same order in which you accomplished them, would you
be guilty of lying (to yourself or to a colleague)? No. Imagine also
that you returned home after work one day, and told your children some
of the things you had accomplished at the office. Then, you told your
spouse the same things you told your children, only in a somewhat
different order. Would your children have any right to call you a liar
if they overheard this second conversation between you and your spouse?
Of course not. The only reason your children might be justified in
calling you a liar is if you had told both them and your spouse that
every event you rehearsed happened in the precise order in which you
mentioned them.
The only way a skeptic could prove that Matthew 27:50-51 and Luke
23:44-46 are contradictory is if he or she could establish that both
writers claimed to be writing all of these events in precisely the same
order in which they occurred. Since, however, the critic cannot prove
such intended chronology, he is left with another
alleged and
unproven
“contradiction.” Interesting, is it not, that this fairly simple
“problem” was listed as a “top-five” question with which to “stump” a
Christian?
TO GALILEE OR JERUSALEM?
Three times in the gospel of Matthew, the writer recorded where certain
disciples of Jesus were instructed to meet the Lord in Galilee after
His resurrection. During the Passover meal that Jesus ate the night of
His betrayal, He informed His disciples, saying, “After I have been
raised, I will go before you to Galilee” (Matthew 26:32). Three days
later, on the day of Jesus’ resurrection when Mary Magdalene and the
other women came to the empty tomb of Jesus, Matthew recorded how an
angel told them to notify the disciples of Jesus’ resurrection, and to
tell them exactly the same thing they were told three days earlier: “He
is going before you into Galilee; there you will see Him” (28:7). Then,
only three verses later, as the women were on their way to inform the
disciples of Jesus’ resurrection and the message given to them by the
angel, Matthew recorded how Jesus appeared to them and said:
“Rejoice!... Do not be afraid. Go and tell My brethren to go to Galilee,
and there they will see Me” (28:9-10). Sometime thereafter, “the eleven
disciples went away into Galilee, to the mountain which Jesus had
appointed for them,” and “worshiped Him” (28:16-17).
According to Matthew, Jesus unquestionably wanted to meet with His
disciples in Galilee following His resurrection. However, some skeptics
and sincere Bible students have asked why, according to Luke, Jesus met
with His disciples in Jerusalem (24:33-43), and then commanded them to
stay there until they were “endued with power from on high” (24:49)?
Does Luke’s account contradict Matthew’s? According to one Bible
antagonist,
Matthew, Mark, and John have Jesus saying the disciples are to
rendezvous with him in Galilee, northern Israel, about three days
journey away. In contradiction to this, Luke’s two books—The Gospel of
Luke and The Book of Acts, have Jesus planning to rendezvous in
Jerusalem....
In the real world, people cannot be in two places at the same time,
and to claim otherwise is to be caught up in a contradiction.... The
Bible, like the cheating husband, has been caught in a contradiction,
exposed as a liar, and therefore can’t be trusted to tell the truth
(Smith, 1995).
Is the skeptic right? Is the Bible at fault in this instance? Does it
place the same people in two different places “at the same time”? Where
exactly did Jesus intend to meet with His disciples—in Galilee or
Jerusalem?
The truth is, Jesus met with His disciples in both places, but He did so at
different
times. One of the reasons so many people allege that two or more Bible
passages are contradictory is because they fail to recognize that mere
differences do not necessitate a contradiction. For there to be a bona
fide contradiction, not only must one be referring to the same person,
place, or thing in the same sense, but
the same time period
must be under consideration. If a person looks at a single door in the
back of a building and says, “That door is shut,” but also says, “That
door is open,” has he contradicted himself? Not necessarily. The door
may have been shut at one moment, but then opened the next by a strong
gust of wind. Time and chronology are important factors to consider when
dealing with alleged errors in the Bible.
Consider another illustration that more closely resembles the alleged
problem posed by the skeptic. At the end of every year, the professional
and managerial staff members at Apologetics Press travel to Birmingham,
Alabama, for a two-day, end-of-the-year meeting. Suppose the Executive
Director reminds us of this event three days beforehand, saying, “Don’t
forget about our meeting in Birmingham beginning Thursday,” and then
calls our homes on the morning of the meeting as another reminder,
saying, “Don’t forget about our meeting today in Birmingham.” Would
someone be justified in concluding that our Executive Director had lied
about the meeting if, on that Thursday morning, all of the staff members
at Apologetics Press (including the Executive Director) showed up at
work in Montgomery, and carried out some of the same tasks performed on
any other workday? Not at all. Actually, on the day the staff at
Apologetics Press leaves for the end-of-the-year meeting, it is common
for everyone to work until about 10:30 a.m., and then depart for the
meeting in Birmingham. If someone asked whether we went into work in
Montgomery on Thursday, one honestly could say, “Yes.” If someone else asked if we traveled to
Birmingham
on Thursday for a two-day meeting, again, one could truthfully say,
“Yes.” Both statements would be true. We met at both places on the same
day, only at
different times.
Similarly, Jesus met with His disciples
both in
Jerusalem and in Galilee, but at different times. On the day of His
resurrection, He met with all of the apostles (except Thomas) in
Jerusalem, just as both Luke and John recorded (Luke 24:33-43; John
20:19-25). Since Jesus was on the Earth for forty days following His
resurrection (cf. Acts 1:3), sometime between this meeting with His
apostles in Jerusalem and His ascension more than five weeks later,
Jesus met with seven of His disciples at the Sea of Tiberias in Galilee
(John 21:1-14), and later with all eleven of the apostles on a mountain
in Galilee that Jesus earlier had appointed for them (Matthew 28:16).
Sometime following these meetings in Galilee, Jesus and His disciples
traveled back to Judea, where He ascended into heaven from the Mount of
Olives near Bethany (Luke 24:50-53; Acts 1:9-12).
None of the accounts of Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances
contradicts another. Rather, each writer supplemented what another left
out. Jesus may have appeared to the disciples a number of times during
the forty days on Earth after His resurrection (cf. 1 Corinthians
15:1-7), while the New Testament writers mentioned only the more
prominent instances in order to substantiate the fact of His
resurrection.
But, one may ask, “Why did Jesus command His apostles to ‘tarry in the city of Jerusalem’
on the day of His resurrection
until they were ‘endued with power from on high’ (Luke 24:49), if He
really wanted them to meet Him in Galilee?” Actually, it is an
assumption to assert that Jesus made the above statement on the same day
that He arose from the grave. As has been shown throughout this
article, Bible writers frequently moved from one subject to the next
without giving the actual time or the exact order in which something was
done or taught (cf. Luke 4:1-3; Matthew 4:1-11). In Luke 24, the writer
omitted the post-resurrection appearances of Jesus in Galilee
(mentioned by both Matthew and John). However, notice that he never
stated that Jesus remained
only in Jerusalem from the day He rose from the grave until the day He ascended into heaven.
According to Luke 24 verses 1,13,21,29, and 33, the events recorded in
the first forty-three verses of that chapter all took place on the very
day of Jesus’ resurrection. The last four verses of Luke 24 (vss.
50-53), however, took place (according to Luke) more than five weeks
later (cf. Acts 1:1-12). But what about verses 44-49? When were these
statements made? The truth is, no one can know for sure. Luke gives no
indication (as he did in the preceding verses) that this particular
section took place “on the first day of the week” (24:1), or on “the
third day” since Jesus’ crucifixion (24:21). All we know is that verses
44-49 took place sometime before He ascended into heaven (vss. 50-51).
Simply because Luke used the Greek conjunctive particle
de [translated “and” (ASV), “then” (NKJV), and “now” (NASV)]
to begin verse 44, does not necessarily denote a close connection
between the two verses, but only a general continuation of the account
and a brief statement of what Jesus said. Even though many
twenty-first-century readers assume that the events recorded in Luke
24:44-49 occurred on the very day Jesus rose from the grave, the text
actually is silent on the matter.
WHEN DID PAUL GO TO JERUSALEM?
Three times in the book of Acts, the Bible student is informed that
after Saul’s conversion to Christ in Damascus, he departed for
Jerusalem. According to Acts chapter 9, Saul (also called Paul)
“increased all the more in strength” following his baptism into Christ,
and “confounded the Jews who dwelt in Damascus” (vs. 22). Then, when
“many days were past... the disciples took him by night and let him down
through the wall in a large basket” for fear of the Jews (vss. 23,25).
Immediately following these verses, the text reads: “
And when Saul had come to Jerusalem,
he tried to join the disciples; but they were all afraid of him, and
did not believe that he was a disciple” (vs. 26, emp. added). Add to
these verses Paul’s respective statements to the Jerusalem mob (Acts
22:17) and to King Agrippa (Acts 26:20) regarding his journey from
Damascus to Jerusalem, and Bible students get the impression that
shortly after Paul’s conversion in Damascus, he journeyed to Jerusalem.
The problem with this reasoning is that Paul later wrote to the churches
of Galatia, and indicated that he “did not immediately...go up to
Jerusalem” following his conversion to Christ (Galatians 1:16). Rather,
he went to Arabia, back to Damascus, and then
after three years he went up to Jerusalem (1:17-18). [NOTE:
“Arabia” generally is taken as a reference to the vast peninsula which
bears that name. Its northwestern boundaries reached almost to
Damascus—Pfeiffer, 1979, p. 203.] Concerned Bible students want to know
how these passages are harmonized? Did Paul go straight to Jerusalem
shortly after his conversion, or three years later?
Although Acts chapters 9, 22, and 26 all indicate that Paul went from
Damascus to Jerusalem after he became a Christian, one must realize that
none of these passages specifically says that Paul went
straight from Damascus to Jerusalem. It only says, “And
when
Saul had come to Jerusalem....” The writer of Acts gives no time
limitations here. In fact, nowhere in the New Testament will a person
find a statement denying that three years expired between Paul’s
conversion and his first trip to Jerusalem as a Christian. Although
rarely emphasized, what the Bible does
not say
regarding Paul’s journeys is very important—it proves that the alleged
contradiction is based only on speculation, and not on a fair
representation of the Scriptures.
Some question why Paul did not mention his trip to Arabia to preach
among the Gentiles when he spoke to the Jewish mob in Jerusalem, and
later to King Agrippa. Was it not a vital piece of information? Did he
just “forget” about this part of his life? Actually, Paul had a good
reason for not mentioning his trip to Arabia—he was speaking to Jews who
were “seeking to kill him” because of his dealings with Gentiles (Acts
21:28-31). As a way of comparison, we can understand why a college
football player who transferred from a rival school may not talk to his
current teammates about his former college experiences, or why a new
sales representative who transferred from a competing company may
refrain from talking to current customers and/or coworkers about the
three years he spent with the rival company. In a similar way, it did
not aid Paul’s cause to mention at the very outset of his speech that
some of his first work for the Lord was done among the Gentiles. (The
Jews hated Paul for his dealings with the Gentiles. The events recorded
in Acts 21 alone are proof of such hatred.) Certain situations simply
warrant silence on a subject, rather than an exhaustive detailing of
historical facts. Paul did not lie (to the Jerusalem mob or to King
Agrippa) about his past experience working with the Gentiles for a time;
he merely
omitted this piece of information in his
efforts to show his fellow Jews that the very people among whom he had
been a loyal persecutor were those to whom he now preached.
The twenty-first-century reader must remember that a Bible writer (or a
speaker whom a Bible writer quotes) may be writing/speaking from one
point of view, and raise a point that may not be made in another
situation. Neither Paul in his speeches, nor Luke in penning the book of
Acts to Theophilus, saw a need to mention Paul’s journey to Arabia. In
his letter to the churches of Galatia, however, Paul was dealing with
Judaizers who taught that one had to keep the Law of Moses to be saved,
and who wished to discredit Paul as an apostle. Paul thus wrote to tell
them that after his conversion, he preached among the Gentiles for an
extended amount of time
before ever meeting with
another apostle. Paul did not hurry off to Jerusalem to get instruction
and approval from the Twelve. In defense of his apostolic credentials to
the churches of Galatia, Paul mentioned his delayed journey to
Jerusalem in order to emphasize (among other things) his genuine
apostleship, whose message and authority came from Almighty God, and not
from the twelve apostles, or any other person.
CONCLUSION
The burden of proof is on the Bible critic to verify his allegations.
Although one of the skeptics quoted earlier compared the Bible to a
“cheating husband” who “has been caught in a contradiction,” one must
remember how equally deplorable it is to draw up charges of marital
unfaithfulness when there is no proof of such. In reality, the Bible
should be likened to a faithful husband who has been wrongfully accused
of infidelity by prejudiced, overbearing skeptics whose case is based
upon unproven assumptions.
The apologist does not have to know the exact solution to an alleged
contradiction; he need only show one or more possibilities of
harmonization. We act by this principle in the courtroom, in our
treatment of various historical books, as well as in everyday-life
situations. It is only fair, then, that we show the Bible the same
courtesy by exhausting the search for possible harmony between passages
before pronouncing one or both accounts false.
REFERENCES
Barnes, Albert (1956),
Notes on the New Testament: Luke-John (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker).
Cook, J.M. (1983),
The Persians (London: Orion Publishing Group).
Fausset, A.R. (1998),
Fausset’s Bible Dictionary (Electronic Database: Biblesoft).
Greenleaf, Simon (1995),
The Testimony of the Evangelists (Grand Rapids, MI: Kregel Classics).
“Inerrancy: Where Conservative Christianity Stands or Falls” (no date), [On-line], URL: http://users.vei.net/smijer/christianity/bunk.html.
Jamieson, Robert, et al. (1997),
Jamieson, Fausset, Brown Bible Commentary (Electronic Database: Biblesoft).
McKinsey, C. Dennis (1988a), “Editor’s Note,”
Biblical Errancy, p. 6, March.
McKinsey, C. Dennis (1988b), “Letter 263,”
Biblical Errancy, p. 6, May.
Morgan, Donald (2003), “Biblical Inconsistencies,” [On-line], URL: http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/donald_morgan/inconsistencies.shtml.
Morris, Leon (1995),
The Gospel According to John (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans), revised edition.
Pfeiffer, Charles F. (1979),
Baker’s Bible Atlas (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker).
Smith, Mark A. (1995), “Gospel Wars: Galilee-vs-Jerusalem,” [On-line], URL: http://www.Jcnot4me.com/Items/contradictions/GALILEE-vs-JERUSALEM.htm.
Thomson, William M. (1859),
The Land and the Book (New York: Harper and Brothers).
Tobin, Paul N. (2000), “Internal Contradictions in the Bible,”
The Rejection of Pascal’s Wager, [On-line], URL: http://www.geocities.com/paulntobin/internal.html.
van Praag, Herman M. (1986), “The Downfall of King Saul: The Neurobiological Consequences of Losing Hope,”
Judaism, 35:421.
Wells, Steve (2001),
Skeptic’s Annotated Bible, [On-line], URL: http://www.Skepticsannotatedbible.com.
Wilson, R. Dick (1996), “Artaxerxes,”
International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia (Electronic Database: Biblesoft).
Youngblood, Ronald F. (1992),
The Expositor’s Bible Commentary: 1 & 2 Samuel (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan).